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GEOG210: PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

Recommended Textbook:   
McKnight, T.L. and Hess, D. (2014). Physical geography: A landscape appreciation Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall, 11th Edition

COURSE DESCRIPTION:

This course identifies and describes the physical elements and processes that occur on and below the earth's surface, their interactions and global distributional patterns. The roles of the interacting physical elements in forming a conducive human habitat are also examined.

COURSE OBJECTIVE:

In this course students should be able to:

  • increase their physical landscape awareness and appreciation
    •
  • describe, explain and recognize the physiographic, climatic, pedologic and vegetation regions of the world on map
  • understand the interrelatedness of all the physical elements and their interactions
  • understand human impacts on the physical environment.
    •
COURSE OUTLINE
 

TOPICS

SUBJECT MATTER 

CHAPTERS TO READ
1 Introduction to Planet Earth     ch. 1
2 Portraying the Earth in Maps  ch. 2
3 Introduction to Earth's Atmosphere ch. 3
4 Insolation and Temperature ch. 4
5 Atmospheric Pressure and Wind Systems ch. 5
6 Atmospheric Moisture and Global Precipitation ch. 6
7 Climate and Climatic Types ch. 8
8 Biogeochemical Cycles and Patterns in the Biosphere  ch. 10
9 Global Distribution of Plants and Animal Communities ch. 11
10  Introduction to Soils ch. 12
11 Introduction to Landforms ch. 13
12 Internal Geologic Processes and Landforms ch. 14
13 Earth Surface Processes: Weathering and Mass Wasting, ch. 15
14 Earth Surface Processes: Fluvial Processes ch. 16 and 17
15. Karst and Hydrothermal Processes and Landforms ch. 18

MAKE-UP TAKE HOME EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Two Questions. All answers MUST be typed, double-spaced. Each question MUST not exceed three pages.  Read the class textbook, class notes and consult other sources before attempting the questions.
Due Date: Last day of lectures.

1.         With the aid of a well-labeled diagram, describe in detail the
             thermal structure of the atmosphere.

2.         Describe and explain the growing global problem of ozone depletion
            and comment on its effects. 

3.         Describe and explain the distribution of precipitation amount in the United States of America. Illustrate with well-drawn annual, July and January precipitation maps of the country. 

4.         What is El Nino? Critically review its global effects on atmospheric circulation, weather and climate.

5.         Describe the global distribution and characteristics of tropical
            rainforest. Comment on the growing problems of deforestation and
            the loss of biodiversity of tropical rainforest.

6.         What is global warming? Describe some of the effects of global
            warming on weather and climate.

  
   

REVIEW QUESTIONS

Review Questions for Quiz 1

1.         Which of the following statements does not represent the main focus of physical geography?

A.        understanding the natural components of the earth, namely: atmosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere and lithosphere

B.         the interactions of the atmosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere and lithosphere in determining the varied environmental settings on the globe

C.        understanding man's increasing impact on the natural environment

D.        undestanding market forces shapening the world's economy

E.         undestanding geomorphic processes operating at or beneath the earth surface

2.         Physical Geography is important to all of us because:

A.        it improves our understanding of man's environment

B.         it helps us in the discovery of natural resources

C.        it helps us to better recognize and predict areas of natural hazards and potential areas

D.        it provides a guide in planning  and environmental management

E.         all of the above answers.

3.         Which of the following planets is not a terrestrial planet?

A.        Venus                           B.         Earth                C.        Mercury

D.        Uranus                         E.         Mars

4.         In contrast with Jovian planets, terrestrial planets are:

A.        smaller in size

B.         rocky and very dense (>3gm/cm3)

C.        less oblate

D.        slower in rotation

E.         all of the above answers.

5.         The oblate spheroidal shape of the earth is best supported by

A.        the fact that the polar diameter of the earth is shorter than the equatorial diameter by 27 miles

B.         visual evidences from photographs obtained by orbiting satellites

C.        a relatively lower value of gravity at the equator which increases slightly towards the poles

D.        the centrifugal force generated by earth's rotation

E.         A and C

6.         The plane of the ecliptic is:

A.        associated with the measurement of the angle of inclination of the earth's axis

B.         primarily related to the determination of the longitude of a place

C.        helpful in the construction of certain types of map projections

D.        useful in defining time zones

E.         important in measurement of latitude

7.         Lines of latitude:

A.        are called meridians

B.         run east and west

C.        are used in measuring time changes

D.        converge at the poles

8.         Choose the incorrect statement concerning parallels:

A.        they are lines of latitude

B.         they are all of the same length

C.        they measure angular distances north and south of the equator

D.        they cross meridians at right angles

E.         they represent true east-west directions

9.         Latitude 66½oS is called:

A.        the equator                                           B.         Tropic of Cancer

C.        Tropic of Capricon                               D.        Arctic Circle

D.        Antarctic Circle

10.       Which of the following statements about great circles is not true?

A.        a plane passing through a great circle divides the earth into 2 equal halves

B.         a great circle drawn to join two points is always the shortest route between them

C.        the Prime Meridian and Long. 180o together form a great circle

D.        the equator is the only parallel that qualifies as a great circle

E.         places located on the same great circle experience mid-day (noon) at the same time

11.       If it is 6.00 A.M. Monday in Tokyo (140o E), what time is it in Rio de Janeiro (40o  W)?

A.        6.00 P.M. Monday                   B.         6.00 P.M. Sunday

C.        6.00 A.M. Tuesday                  D.        6.00 A.M. Monday

E.         6.00 A.M. Sunday  

12.       The sun's rays are vertical over the Tropic of Capricon on:

A.        March 21                                B.         June 22                       

C.        December 22                         D.        September 21

E.         never

13.       If one were to travel directly southward from the equator to the Antarctic Circle on December 22, the length of daylight in a 24-hour period would:

A.        grow longer                

B.         grow shorter    

C.        remain the same

D.        grow longer to the Tropic of Capricon and then shorter to the poles

14.       In the earth's orbit around the sun, the point where the earth is farthest from the sun is called the:

A.        equinox                        B.         ecliptic              C.        aphelion

D.        solstice             E.         perihelion

15.       What is the angle measured from the earth's axis to the plane of ecliptic?

A.        66½o                            B.         23½o                                        C.        90o

D.        0o                                 E.         12½o

16.            The location of the subsolar point during the month of August is somewhere

A.        north of the equator                             

B.         south of the equator

C.        at the equator              

D.        north of the equator but close to the Tropic of Cancer

E.         at the poles

17.       The imaginary line that marks the northernmost limit on the earth surface that receives vertical rays of the sun is called the:

A.        equinox                                                B.         albedo

C.        circle of illumination                   D.        summer solstice

E.         Tropic of Cancer

18.       In July, the Los Angeles area is warmer than in December because

A.        the earth is closer to the sun in July

B.         the sun gives off more heat in July

C.        the atmosphere is denser in December

D.        the sun's rays strike at a higher angle in July

E.         sun spot fluctuations are greater in December

19.       Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A.        all places north of the Tropic of Cancer record their highest angle of the sun's rays at noon during the summer solstice in the northern  hemisphere

B.         all places north of the Arctic Circle enjoy 24-hr of continuous sunlight during the summer solstice in the northern hemisphere

C.        the north pole leans towards the sun during summer solstice in the northern hemisphere

D.        all places north of the Tropic of Cancer record their longest length of daylight during the winter solstice

E.         all places enjoy equal hours of day and night during the equinoxes

20.       Which of the following is not a standard meridian?

A.        Long.45o                                  B.         Long 130o        C.        Long. 105o

D.        Long. 165o                               E.         Long. 180o

21.       The standard meridian for the central time zone of the United States is

A.        Long. 75oW                 B.         Long. 105oW   C.        Long. 165oW

D.        Long. 90oW                 E.         Long. 150oW

22.       Which of the following statements about earth's revolution is incorrect

A.        earth's axis always points towards Polaris during revolution

B.         earth moves in counterclockwise direction during revolution

C.        the path of earth's revolution is called the orbit which elliptical in shape

D.        the earth completes a full revolution in 365 days

E.         earth's revolution together with the inclination and polarity of earth's axis cause the sun's rays to strike the earth at different angles at noon during the cause of one year

23.       During the Vernal equinox,  the subsolar point is located at

A.        the equator in its southward journey to the Tropic of Capricon

B.         the equator in its northward journey to the Tropic of Cancer

C.        the Tropic of Capricon in its return journey to the equator

D.        the Tropic of Cancer in its return journey to the equator

E.         none of the above answers

24.       The latitude of New Orleans directly south of Edwardsville is lat. 30o N. What is the distance in kilometers between New Orleans and Edwardsville, if the latitude of Edwardsville is lat. 38o N?  (1o = 111km).

A.        1500 km                                  B.         1000 km          C.        888 km

D.        1200 km                                  E.         2300 km

25.       If it is 10.00 A.M. GMT on Monday, what is the longitude of Town B if its   time is 8.00 P.M. on Monday?

A.        Long. 140oW   B.         Long. 150oW   C.        Long. 160oW

D.        Long. 150oE                 E.         105oE

26.       The polar diameter is shorter than the equatorial diameter by 27 miles

A.        True                             B.         False

27.       Except for the equator, the circles of latitude are all great circles

A.        True                             B.         False

28.       The continental United States has six standard time zones

A.        True                             B.         False

29.       On January 3, the earth is at its Perihelion position

A.        True                             B.         False

30.       A Tropical Year is 365¼ days

A.        True                             B.         False

31.  The stratosphere:

A.         has no winds                            

B.         has constant temperature throughout its depth

C.         is below the troposphere

D.         destroys ozone

E.         is warmer at the top (stratopause) than at the bottom

32.  Most of what we call “weather” occurs in the:

A.                  Troposphere                 B.         Stratosphere     C.        Ionosphere

D.                  Mesosphere                 E.         Ozonosphere

33.  Atmospheric particles (such as dust and ash):

A.                  aid in cloud formation    B.         absorb sunlight  C.        attract water

D.                  reflect sunlight               E.         all of the above

34.  The part of the atmosphere that shields earth’s surface from harmful ultraviolet radiation is:

A.                  Troposphere                 B.         Tropopause      C.        Ozonosphere
 

D.                  Mesosphere                 E.         None of the above

 35.  The aurora borealis and aurora australis (northern and southern lights) are caused by 
        the interaction between charged particles and the Earth's magnetic field. The layer of 
        the Earth's atmosphere which contains these particles is the _____.

A.                  Troposphere                 B.         Mesosphere        C.        Ozonosphere

D.                  Ionosphere                   E.         Stratosphere

36.  Which atmosphere zone is characterized by gases which are not well mixed and 
                which are layered in accordance with their molecular masses?

A.                  Troposphere            B.         Mesosphere          C.        Ozonosphere

D.                  Homosphere            E.         Heterosphere

37.  Which of the following circles has a center that does NOT coincide with Earth's center?

A.        The Great Circle         B.         The Small Circle           C.        The Equator

D.        A meridian                 E.         The Prime Meridian

 38.  Only one half of the earth can receive sunlight at any one time. At the time of the June 
                solstice, this half:

        A.           extends from North Pole to South Pole

        B.           lies between the Arctic Circle and Antarctic Circle

        C.           includes the area lying equatorward of the Antarctic circle

        D.           excludes the areas lying poleward of the Arctic and Antarctic circles

        E.           None of the above

39.  Our home galaxy, the Milky Way, is some _____ light years in diameter.

A.   10        B.         100      C.        1000    D.        10000      E.         100000

40.  One thing parallels and meridians have in common is

    A.                  they converge as they approach the poles

    B.                  they are great circles

    C.                  the planes of both always pass through the center of the Earth

    D.                  they are imaginary circles drawn on the earth

    E.                 the distance between adjacent lines is constant

Review Questions for Quiz 2

1.    Wind speed is determined mainly by
        A.    Latitude            B.    Parallax        C.     Pressure gradient force    
        D.    Coriolis effect    E.    Gravitational force
2.    During the winter season in Edwardsville, sudden drops in temperature during the
       daytime are often associated with:
        A.    sudden drop in solar altitude
        B.    sudden increase in solar altitude
        C.    passage of cold Canadian air mass
        D.    passage of warm Gulf streams
        E.    Antitrade winds
3.    The pressure gradient force causes wind to move from centers of high pressure to
       centers of low pressure
        A.    Directly across isobars                 B.    Parallel to isobars
        C.    Obliquely across isobars               D.    Around isobars
        E.    None of the answers
4.    The largest portion of energy that the earth receives from the sun comes as:
        A.    infrared radiation
        B.    x-rays, gamma rays, and ultraviolet radiation
        C.    visible light and shortwave infrared radiation
        D.    diffuse counterradiation
        E.    ultraviolet radiation
5.    The earth and sun both emit radiation, but they do so at largely different
       wavelengths. Why?
        A.    the sun is bigger than the earth
        B.    the sun is colder than the earth
        C.    the earth is tilted on its axis
        D.    the sun has no atmosphere
        E.    the sun is hotter than the earth
6.    The ______ refers to the reflectivity of a surface.
        A.    adiabatic     B.     lapse rate     C.     transmissivity   D.    absorption
        E.    albedo
7.    Most energy emitted by the earth's surface
        A.    Comes from the earth's interior as geothermal energy
        B.    is reflected by the atmosphere
        C.    is absorbed by the atmosphere
        D.    is shortwave radiation
        E.    is transmitted through the atmosphere and escapes to space
8.     Compared to a land surface subject to the same heating, an ocean surface
        should
        A.    have a larger seasonal temperature range
        B.    have a higher summer temperature
        C.    have a lower winter temperature
        D.    have a seasonal temperature cycle lagging behind the land's seasonal
               temperature cycle
        E.    have a seasonal temperature cycle ahead of the land's temperature cycle
9.    The vertical transfer of heat from one point to another by a moving substance is called
        A.    conduction     B.     radiative transfer     C.     convection
        D.    subduction     E.     condensation
10.    On an annual basis, which of the following latitudes is net radiation surplus?
        A.    60ºN    B.    42ºN    C.    20ºN    D.    60ºS    E.    All of the above
11.    A temperature inversion is a situation where
        A.    temperature decreases with increasing altitude
        B.    temperature remains constant with increasing altitude
        C.    temperature increases with increasing altitude
        D.    vertical motions are enhanced
        E.    air quality is good
12.    In North America, one might expect to find the greatest annual temperature range
        A.    in eastern Alaska and northwest Canada
        B.    along the Pacific coast
        C.    in southern Florida
        D.    in central Arizona
        E.    in the north-central United States
13.    Katabatic winds
        A.    are caused by land-sea temperature contrasts
        B.    are a type of upslope flow
        C.    are commonly found in tropical areas
        D.    are caused by cold air drainage off of ice sheets and other cold areas
        E.    none of the above
14.    Hadley Circulation
        A.    refers to high latitude circulation patterns
        B.    occurs only under unusual circumstances
        C.    is confined to the tropics and subtropics
        D.    does not influence the trade winds
        E.    is strongest in the hemisphere which is experiencing summer
15.   We measure air pressure using a(n) _____.
        A.    thermometer             B.     anemometer         C.     barometer
        D.     Toricelli pump          E.     isobar
16.   The "mistral", "taku", "bora" are local names for a gravity flow wind which is
        properly termed _________ wind.
        A.     Sea breeze         B.     Hadley cell         C.         Monsoon
        D.    Katabatic             E.     Foehn
17.   The wildfires experienced in summer in California are known to be accelerated by
        the high speed, high temperature and extreme dry local wind called:
        A.    Mistral                 B.     Mountain winds     C.     Santa Anas
        D.    Sea breeze          E.     Monsoon winds
18.    A local dry wind occurring to the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains and often
        with high capacity to evaporate snow is
        A.    sea breeze             B.     land breeze         C.     geostrophic wind
        D.     anticyclone            E.     chinook wind
19.   The sea breeze occurs when the pressure gradient force
        A.    is intensified at night
        B.    is from ocean to land
        C.    is from land to ocean
        D.    reaches a zero value
        E.    is equal to coriolis force
20.    In the southern hemisphere the coriolis effect always acts to turn the flow of air
        A.    to the right     B.     to the left     C.     to the east     D.     to the west
        E.     to the north
21.    In winter, the average barometric pressure over north-central Asia (Siberia) is
        generally described as:
        A.    high             B.     about average        C. low     D. constantly fluctuating
        E.    none
22.    An east-west trough of pressure, 1011 to 1008 mb, lying approximately over the
        equator is generally referred to as:
        A.    The doldrum                 B.     The subantarctic low        C. The polar high
        D.     The subtropical high     E.    None
23.    What pressure center exists over the North Pacific during the winter season?
        A.    Siberian high          B.     Aleutian low     C.     Icelandic low    
        D.     Canadian high       E. Doldrum
24.   According to Wien’s Displacement Law, the wavelength of maximum emission is
       inversely proportional to the absolute temperature of the radiating body, hence
       cold bodies tend to radiate more:
        A.    Longwave radiation         B. Shortwave radiation
        C.    Visible light                    D. Gamma rays
25.    A body that emits the maximum amount of radiation possible at every wavelength
        for its temperature is called:
        A.    Albedo                     B.     Isotherms                    C.     Infrared radiation
        D.    Black body               E.     Electromagnetic spectrum
26.   The lower latitudes receive much more solar energy than temperate zones
        because of:
        A.    Maritime influence                  B.     Higher albedo
        C.    Lower solaraltitude                 D.     Higher solar altitude
        E.    Greenhouse effect
27.    The sky is blue because of a phenomenon known as:
        A.    Raleigh Scattering             B.     Advection        C.     Conduction
        D.    Coriolis force                     E.    Mie Scattering
28.   Which of the following statements about the distribution of insolation on the
        earth’s surface is not correct?
        A.    Equator has 2 maximum periods of insolation corresponding to the 2
               equinoxes
        B.    All places between the Tropic of Cancer and the tropic of Capricon have 2
               maximum periods of insolation corresponding to the passage of the sub-solar
               point
        C.    All places beyond the tropics have a single peak of insolation often recorded
               about winter solstice
        D.    All places beyond the tropics have a single peak of insolation often recorded
               about summer solstice
        E.    Equator has two minimum periods of insolation often recorded at the two
               solstices
29.   Most of the energy gained by the atmosphere is re-radiated to the earth surface in
        the form of:
        A.    counter-radiation         B.     Diffuse radiation    C.     Direct radiation
        D.     Solar radiation            E.     Net radiation
30.   The most important function of the general circulation of the atmosphere is to:
        A.    Even out the imbalance of heat between the low and high latitudes
        B.    Ensure that the oceanic circulation system is kept going
        C.    Transport moisture from high to low latitudes
        D.    Help conserve angular momentum within the earth-atmosphere system

Review Questions for Quiz 3

1.         The altitude at which the dew point is reached is the
A.         dew point level   B.         lifting condensation level            
C.         saturation level   D.         isohyet E.         advection

2.         Warm air moving over a cold lake or cold ocean surface will result in a(n) _____ type of fog.
A.         advection           B.         radiation            C.         evaporation fog  
D.         convection         E.         none of the above

3.         If air's capacity for holding water vapor is diminished at night because of lowered temperature, then the relative humidity will
A.     rise           B.     fall            C.     be unchanged    D.     double          E.     none 

4.         The thin clouds of ice crystals at very high altitudes and with cloud base at 6 km are called
A.         cumulus         B.     stratus         C.     alto    D.     cirrus     E.     jet wisps

5.         Heat is released to the surrounding air when
A.         water vapor changes to liquid water
B.         ice changes to water vapor
C.         ice changes to water
D.         A and C

6.         Which of the following is unrelated to the base of a cloud?

A.         lifting condensation level
B.         100% relative humidity
C.         dew point
D.         sensible temperature
E.         saturated air

7.         The saturation point of air containing water vapor is most likely to be reached by

A.         increasing temperature
B.         decreasing the amount of water vapor in the air
C.         reducing the temperature of the air
D.         keeping the air above its dew point temperature

8.         Instrument used for measuring relative humidity is called

A.         thermometer     B.          thermostat         C.         anemometer    
D.         hygrometer       

9.         When wet bulb depression is zero

A.         relative humidity is zero
B.         relative humidity is 50%
C.         relative humidity is 100%
D.         relative humidity is equal to specific humidity
E.         relative humidity is depressed

10.        When the lapse rate of the surrounding air is greater than the dry adiabatic lapse
             rate of the rising air, the atmosphere is said to be:

A.         stable     B.       unstable    C.     conditionally unstable     D.         highly stable

11.        Which of the following statements is incorrect about adiabatic processes?

A.         adiabatic process occurs without gain or loss of heat
B.         adiabatic cooling or warming applies only to air in motion
C.         rising air warms up adiabatically
D.         descending air warms up adiabatically
E.         wet adiabatic cooling is diminished because of the release of latent heat

12.       Cloud seeding involves

A.         a change of adiabatic cooling to adiabatic warming
B.         the introduction of silver iodide into the cloud as condensation nuclei in   
            the process of artificial rain making
C.         the formation of cirrus clouds
D.         the condensation of water vapor around wind dispersed seeds
E.         B and D

13.       The mass of water vapor contained in a unit mass of air is Called

A.         condensation     B.         relative humidity             C.         specific humidity
D.         dew point E. vaporization

14.        The difference in readings between a dry-bulb thermometer and a wet-bulb
thermometer is called

A.         dry-bulb depression        B.         relative humidity depression
C.         wet-bulb depression       D.         atmospheric depression
E.         depression

15.        Which of the following statements is not correct about acid rain

A.         it is more of a washout process
B.         it is more of a fallout process
C.         it originates from compounds in gaseous forms
D.         associated with the washout of sulfuric acids
E.         associated with the washout of oxides of nitrogen

16.        Which of the following statements about climate is not correct?

A.         It is the average characteristics of the atmosphere of a given place
observed over a long time period.

B.         components of weather are similar to those of climate

C.         departures from the average weather conditions are not important

D.         the climate of a place is more predictable than weather conditions

E.         operates over a large area and large time span

17.        The three climatic regions recognized by ancient Greek scholars include:

A.         torrid, equatorial, and frigid zones
B.         torrid, polar, and temperate zones
C.         torrid, frigid, and temperate zones
D.         tropical, torrid, and frigid zones
E.         frigid, temperate, and equatorial zones

18.        The ancient Greek method of climate classification that was used for over 1000
 years was later abandoned because

A.         it was too old
B.         it failed to recognize the warm, moist equatorial zones
C.         it failed to include both the warm and wet climates of the equatorial
            regions and cold polar climates
D.         it failed to change its classification from torrid to a more modern term like
            tropical climate
E.         it failed to recognize the midlatitude climates

19.       In which climatic types is winter the season of precipitation maximum?

A.         Tropical savanna climates           B.         Tundra
C.         Mediterranean climate    D.         Subtropical Steppe
E.         Tropical monsoonal climate

20.       According to Koppen, ET climate means

A.         tropical wet climate        B.         Mediterranean climate
C.         tundra climate                D.         tropical savanna
E.         subtropical deserts

21.        Which of the following is not a control or characteristic of Koppen Cfb and Cfc
            (Marine West) climates?

A.         located on the western sides of continents in middle latitudes
B.         influenced by moist trade winds in summer
C.         influenced by warm ocean currents all year
D.         Controlled by Westerly flow and oceanic influence all year round

22.        Which of the following represents the warmest climate?

A.     Cfa           B.     Cfb     C.     Cfc     D.     ET

23.        The term used in the United States for small raindrops that freeze while falling
            toward the surface is __________.

A.    Snow     B.     Hail     C.     Sleet    D.    Fog     E.     Hoar frost

24.        The critical temperature at which saturation is reached is called __________.

A.    absolute humidity     B. relative humidity
C.    specific humidity     D. dew point      E.    flash point

25.        When air is heated enough so that it is warmer than the surrounding air, it is ____.

A.    unstable     B.     stable     C.     convective    D.    saturated     E.     none

Review Questions for Quiz 4

1.         In the food pyramid, humans
A.     appear at the bottom          B.     at the top        C.     in the middle
D.     in various places               E.     are absence

2.         The flow of energy through an ecosystem is accomplished through the:

A.     food chain    B.     biogeochemical cycle    C.     hydrological cycle 
D.     nitrogen cycle

3.         The flow of materials through an ecosystem is accomplished through the:

A.     food chain     B.     biogeochemical cycle    C.     Food web     D.     Food pyramid

4.         Which of the following measures net primary productivity of an ecosystem?

A.     Ecotone     B.     Biome     C.     Biomass    D.     Carbon cycle     E.     None

5.         Which of the following ecosystems has the greatest biomass?

A.     Temperate grassland     B.     Tropical grassland      C.     Boreal forest 
D.     Tropical Rainforest

6.         The natural vegetation replacement of a meadow by a forest is called:

A.     Ecological succession     B.     extirpation     C.     ecosystem
D.     evolution                         E.     habitat modification.

7.         Which of the following ecosystems is not a major biome?

A.     forest     B.     woodland     C.     tundra    D.     desert     E.     grassland

8.         Which of the following organisms is a producer?

A.     fungus     B.     rabbit     C.     fox     D.     oak tree    E.     wolf

9.         The driving force behind all life cycles in the entire biosphere is

A.     the sun     B.     Water     C.     Nitrogen    D.     hydrogen     E.     oxygen

10.        The world's biomes are bounded by zones of transitions called __________.

A.     benthos     B.     phyla     C.     ecotones    D.     nekton     E.     binomials

11.        Of the main nutrients in the biosphere, the one that is "fixed" inside certain plants roots,
            or legumes, is __________.

A.     carbon     B.     nitrogen     C.     oxygen    D.     hydrogen     E.     calcium

12.        Carbon is fixed in the biosphere through __________ into carbohydrate compounds.

A.     bacteria                B.     biomes     C.     photosynthesis    D.     denitrification 
E.     transit

13.        The response of an organism to the amount of light it receives in a day is termed?

A.     ecotone                B.     photoperiodism     C.     edaphic    D.     photosynthesis 
E.     dentrification

14.        In the language of the food chain, herbivorous animals are called __________.

A.     the apex                           B.     primary consumers    C.     tertiary consumers     
D.     secondary consumers        E.     dominant

15.        The effects of soil on flora and fauna are called __________.

A.     topographic     B.     ecotone     C.     edaphic    D.     biotic     E.     transitory

16.        Which of the following is NOT an example of climatic influence on the biosphere?

A.     moisture     B.     edaphic conditions    C.     temperature     D.     wind
E     none of these

17.        An ecotone is a __________ zone.
A.     biome transition     B.     plant migration    C.     nitrogen accumulation 
D. soil respiration            E.     all of the above

18.        An ecosystem is a(n) __________ that functions as a community.

A.     plant group            B.     association of plants and animals
C.     oceanic biota         D.     animal group         E.     rock type

19.        Animal wastes on the ground form a part of the __________ cycle.

A.     oxygen     B.     carbon     C.     phosphorous    D.    nitrogen 
E.     copper

20.        Atmospheric nitrogen which can be assimilated by plants is __________ nitrogen.

A.     legume     B.     dentrified     C.     juvenile    D.     fixed     E.     liberated

21.      A soil with 10% silt, 50% clay and 40% sand is
           A.   Loam       B.    Silty clay     C.    clay     D.   Sandy clay loam
           E.    Sandy loam

22.     The smallest particle in soil is:
           A.    silt      B.   Gravel     C.   Sand     D.   Clay    E.    Boulder

23.      What type of soil are common in tropical humid climates?
           A.   alkaline soils       B.    acidic soils         C.   saline soils   D.   calcic soil
           E.   All of the above

24.      Which of the following soil water is most available for plant use?
            A.    capillary water   B.   hygroscopic water     C.    gravitational water
            D.    adhesion water   E.   all of the above

25.     What percentage of the soil is mineral matter?
           A.      10%       B.     20%        C.     5%       D.    45%      E.     50%

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