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REVIEW QUESTIONS
REVIEW QUESTIONS FOR QUIZ
1
1. According
to the concept of environmental determinism:
A. the physical environment causes social behavior and
development
B. the physical environment sets limitation
C. people can adjust to the physical environment
D. people can choose a course of action from many
alternatives offered by the physical
environment
2. Santa Fe, New Mexico, is in the Mountain Standard Time Zone,
while Tampa, Florida, in
the Eastern Standard Time Zone. If it is 1 A.M., Monday, in
Tampa, what time is it in
Santa Fe?
A. 3 A.M. Sunday
B. 11
A.M. Sunday
C. 3 A.M. Monday
D. 11 P.M. Monday
3. The International Date Line is measured approximately from
A. 0 degree latitude
B. 0 degrees longitude
C. 90 degrees latitude
D. 180 degrees longitude
4. 1:24,000 is an example of what kind of scale?
A. bar scale
B. fractional scale
C. graphical scale
D. word or statement scale
5. The population of the U.S. is approximately 250 million, and the
land area is
approximately 10 million square kilometers. The arithmetic
density of the U.S. population
is approximately:
A. 25 square kilometers per person
B. 25 persons per square kilometer
C. 0.04 square kilometer per person
D. 0.04 persons per square kilometer
6. A culture hearth is:
A. a region from which innovative ideas originate
B. the material traits of a particular culture
C. a region in which people of different origins live
D. the evolution of a landscape
7. The science of map making is:
A. demography
B. cartography
C. topography
D. geomorphology
8. Which map would have the smallest scale?
A. world map
B. map of a continent
C. a state map
D. a city map
9. The acquisition of data about Earth's surface from a satellite
orbiting the planet or other
long-distance methods is:
A. G.I.S. B. cartography C.
projection
D. remote sensing
10. The geographic grid line opposite the Prime Meridian is
the______.
A. Tropic of Cancer B. 90º
meridian C 180º meridian
D. 320º meridian E. Tropic of Capricon
11. The highest numerical measurement when calculating latitude is
_____.
A. 90º B. 100º C.
180º
D.
360º E. 450º
12. An ecosystem is a(n) _____ that functions as a community.
A. plant group B. association of plants and
animals C. oceanic biota
D. animal group E. rock type
13. A large scale map represents a small portion of surface area at a
high level of detail.
Which fractional unit is not considered to be of large scale?
A. 1/10 B. 1/1,000 C.
1/10,000 D. 1/10,000,000
14. A map that accurately portrays land shape is called a ________.
A. conformal projection B. equidistant
projection
C. equal area projection D. azimuthal projection
15. The amount of solar energy received at a particular place on
Earth depends on:
A. the angle of the sun
B. the season of the year
C. the length of day
D. all of the above answers
16. At which angle (of incidence) will the intensity of solar energy
striking Earth be greatest?
A. 90º B. 60º C.
30º D. 0º
17. On a daily basis, the sun is most intense at:
A. 6:00 AM
B. 12 Noon C. 3:00
PM D. 6:00 PM
18. In the Northern Hemisphere, the sun is lowest in the sky with
less radiation in the:
A. winter B. spring C.
summer D. fall
19. During the vernal equinox, which location receives the greatest
amount of insolation?
A. poles B. Tropic of Cancer C.
Tropic of Capricon
D. Equator
20. Rain shadows in mountainous areas are a result of:
A. convection
B. orographic uplift C.
frontal uplift
D. all of the above
21. Continental polar air masses (e.g Canadian Air Mass) tend to be:
A. cool and wet
B. cool and dry C.
warm and dry
D. warm and wet
22. In the Intertropical Convergence Zone, the Coriolis effect
deflects air in the Southern
Hemisphere, creating
A. Southeast winds
B. Northeast winds
C. Northwest winds
D. Southwest winds
23. Most of the world's deserts occur in what zone?
A. Intertropical Convergence Zone
B. Subtropical High Pressure Zones
C. Mid-latitude (Subpolar) Low Pressure Zones
D. Polar High Pressure Zones
24. Boreal forest climates are associated with
A. subarctic climates
B. Mediterranean climates
C. Tundras
D. Savanna climates
25. Which area of the Earth receives the least precipitation?
A. polar regions
B. desert regions
C. mid-latitudes
D. semi-arid
REVIEW QUESTIONS FOR QUIZ
2
1. Small
organisms that digest and recycle dead plants and animals are:
A.
Producers B. Consumers
C. Decomposers D.
Herbivores
E. Omnivores
2.
Which of the following will be considered a primary producer in a typical
food chain?
A.
Carnivores B. Herbivores
C. Plant D. Bacteria
E. Mushroom
3.
Terrestrial biomes reflect two especially visible features:
A.
Soil and vegetation
B. Climate and vegetation type
C. Terrain and climate type
D. None of the above
4.
If soil is bare or compact.
A.
More water is stored than normal
B. Runoff decreases
C. Infiltration is poor
D. Runoff increases
E. Both C and D
5.
Which of the following is not a macro-nutrient?
A.
Nitrogen B. Calcium
C. Molybdenum D. Potassium
E. Sulphur
6. In the
following food chain:
Oak tree<-----Grasshopper<------frog<---------snake,
the trophy level occupied by frog is that of a:
A.
Primary producer B. Primary consumer
C. Tertiary consumer D. Secondary
producer
E. Secondary consumer
7. The concentration of non-biodegradable pollutants like DDT in
animal tissues tend to
increase progressively from a lower trophic level to a higher
trophic level in a process
known as:
A. Net primary
productivity B. Biomass accumulation
C. Biomagnification D. Community succession
E. Biogeochemical cycle
8.
A transition zone between adjoining biomes is called:
A.
Biomass B. Ecotone C. Competition zone
D. Biodiversity E. Selva
9.
California chaparral woodlands
A.
have no known ecological equivalent any where else in the world
B. are heavily shaded by large trees with deep root systems
C. developed over time to accommodate frequent fires
D. All of the above
10.
The place where Earth's crust actually moves is the _____ of an earthquake.
A.
Focus B. Fault crust C. Epicenter D. Wave front
11. The
Appalachians, the European Alps, and the Himalayas are examples of mountain
ranges formed by
A.
Normal faults B. Divergent plate
boundaries
C. Faulting and folding D.
Volcanic eruptions
12. The
combined length of all the stream channels in a basin, divided by the area
of the
drainage basin is the
A.
Drainage density B. Slope C. Discharge
D. Stream frequency E. Isostatic adjustment
13.
Soil creep is
A. the
most common form of mass movement
B. the very slow, gradual movement of material down slope of
a hill
C. more dangerous and dramatic when it occurs on steep slopes
and in wet conditions
D. All of the above
14.
What kind of rocks have been exposed to great heat and/or pressure and/or
chemically
active fluid,
thereby altering them into more compact, crystalline rock?
A.
sedimentary rocks B.
metamorphic rocks C. igneous rocks
C.
shale
D. granite
E. sandstone
15.
A ridge of materials dumped at the end of a glacier is:
A.
lateral moraine B.
terminal moraine C. outwash plain
D.
cirque
D. Eskers
E. all of the above
16.
Which of the following landform features are related to alpine glaciation?
A.
cirques
B. horn
C. arêtes
D. hanging valleys
E.
all of the above
17. The
study of landforms and the processes that create and modify
them is:
A. demography
B. cartography C.
petrology D. seismology
E. geomorphology
18.
Main type of soil found underneath the boreal forest is:
A. oxisols
B. alfisols C. podosols
D. laterite soils E. aridosols
19.
Desertification is:
A. a natural
process causing desert formation
B. due to
intensification of human activities in areas outside the desert with very
fragile ecosystem
C. due to the
disruption of the permafrost conditions by construction
D. a type of
plant succession
E. all of the
above conditions
20.
Which of the following functions are performed by a river system?
A. erosion
B. transportation C. deposition
D. all three functions
21. The
San Andreas fault, where two plates slide past one another, is a famous
example of
what kind of plate boundary?
A. divergent plate boundary
B. convergent plate boundary
C.
transform plate boundary D.
triple junction boundary
22.
The Hawaiian Islands
A. are a series of shield volcanoes
B.
formed from a series of violent volcanic eruptions
C. lies
atop the meeting place of two major tectonic plates
D. all
of the above
23.
What type of vegetation is dominant in tropical savannas
A. needle leaf
B. broadleaf deciduous C. grass
and shrubs
D. trees
and shrubs E.
xerophytes only
24.
Meat eating animals are known as:
A. herbivores
B. carnivores C.
detrivores D. ominivores
E. all
of the above
25.
In drier areas, such as in central Asia, the vegetation belt called
short-grass prairie is also
known as:
A. tundra B.
savanna C. steppe
D. boreal E. selva
REVIEW QUESTIONS FOR QUIZZES
3&4
1.
Human beings avoid clustering in all but which of these regions?
A. cold lands B. dry lands C. warm
lands
D. wet lands
2. The difference between population geography and demography is
that population geography is
A. totally concerned with human migration
B. the study of individual population in terms of specific group
characteristics C. the study of the distribution of humankind
across the globe
D. the science of "describing people"
3. A world map drawn so that the size of each country is the
reflection of its population rather than its size is called
A. a Mercator projection
B. a standard land-area map
C. a conic projection
D. a cartogram
E. none of the above
4. The constitution of the United States requires a decennial census
to
A. count the population only
B. reapportion seats in the House of representatives
C. establish tax rolls
D. establish the number of Senators to be elected
E. register all eligible males for the draft
5. The invention that has played a major role in allowing people to
settle in the warm regions of the United States is the
A. air conditioner B. airplane
C. automobile
D. television E. pesticide DDT
6. The country with the lowest crude birth rate is
A. United States B. Italy
C. Russia
D. South Africa E. France
7. Throughout the world, fertility rates are__________ in urban
areas than they are in rural areas
A. higher B. lower
C. about equal
D. insignificantly different E. none of the
above
8. China's plan for decreasing the rate of natural increase included
implementation of a one-family/two-child policy.
A. True B. False
9.
Population
densities tend to be low
A.
in level terrain.
B.
in cold climates.
C.
in areas of fertile soil.
D.
near the sea.
10.
Of all communicable diseases, this one currently causes the most deaths
worldwide and responsible for a drastic drop in life expectancies in most
developing countries in Africa.
A.
malaria B. tuberculosis
C. AIDS
D. cholera
11.
Between 1990 and 2000, population increase was highest in
A.
Africa.
B. Europe. C. Latin
America.
D. North America.
12. The
Eastern United States seaboard is more densely populated than the Midwest
because of:
A. topographic factors
B. climatic factors
C. historical factors
D. economic factors
E. C and D
13. An
infant mortality rate of below 10 infant deaths per 1,000 live births is
most likely to occur in which of the following countries?
A. Denmark B. India C.
Nigeria D. USA
E. A and D
14. The
male to female ratio is usually more than 105 in which of the following
countries?
A. Canada B. United Kingdom
C. Italy
D. India C. USA
15.
Which of the following countries has a population density in excess of
14,000 persons/mi2?
A. Canada B.
Mongolia C. Bangladesh
D. USA E. Singapore
16. The
dependency ratio for the United States of America is closest to:
A. 10% B. 20% C.
54% D. 70%
E.
90%
17. In a
1798 essay, the statement that “population was growing at a geometric rate,
while food production grew at arithmetic rate” is attributable to:
A. Jean Antoine Condorcet B. William Morris
Davis
C. Thomas Robert Malthus D. Abraham Lincoln
E. None of the above
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