Multiple Choice Questions for Exam 3, Biology 250

Host Defenses (passive defenses and inflammation, which is active, but nonspecific)

22. A process by which cells with the capacity to engulf and destroy particles and debris are brought into contact with such substances is called
a. phagocytosis b. immunization C. inflammation d. germination
25. The ________________ from the linings of the respiratory tract, GI tract and genital tract all contain antibacterial antibodies and enzymes which act as an important host defense.
a. saliva B. mucous secretions c. enzymes d. gastric secretions
27. The skin, tears, mucous membranes, saliva, and urine are examples of
a. tissue specificity of bacteria B. host barriers to invasion by bacteria c. nontoxic host virulence factors d. vectors
36. The cell that degranulates to begin an inflammatory reaction is a
a. macrophage b. neutrophil C. mast cell d. plasma cell
37. All of the following except ___ are symptoms of inflammation.
a. redness b. swelling C. nausea d. pain
38. The principal vasoactive substance in inflammation is
A. histamine b. protease c. antibody d. M protein
39. Indicate the order in which the following steps in inflammation occur (earliest=1, latest=4) A1,B2,C3,D4
a. degranulation b. increased capillary permeability c. chemotaxis d. phagocytosis
40. An important difference between an inflammatory reaction and an immune response is that immune responses
a. happen faster B. are more specific c. involve mast cells d. do not require cells

Host Defenses--Immune Responses

1. The cell that processes antigen and presents it to lymphocytes is a
a. B lymphocyte b. T lymphocyte C. macrophage
2. The cell that responds to a chemical signal and to the antigen by differentiating and beginning the process that leads to antibody formation is a
A. B lymphocyte b. T lymphocyte c. macrophage d. plasma cell
3. Poison ivy is an example of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, a type of allergy. People who are immune to poison ivy
a. never get rashes from contact with it d. do not have T lymphocytes specific for poison ivy catechols
b. develop gastrointestinal symptoms from contact with it C. develop an itchy rash a couple of days after contact with it
4. After a second exposure to an antigen, the antibody response as measured by the level of specific antibody in the blood plasma does all of the following except ____ (as compared to the primary response).
a. rises to a peak more rapidly c. rises to a higher peak response B. declines more rapidly d. is predominantly IgG
5. The point of a tetanus _______ injection is to provoke your immune system into reacting to the injected substance, which has been altered so that it will not cause the symptoms of tetanus.
a. endospore b. toxin c. capsule D. toxoid
6. Antibodies usually serve as recognition signals to label foreign substances and do not themselves damage antigens. An exception to this is
a. binding of antibody to a bacterial capsule B. inactivation of bacterial toxin by antibodies
c. binding of antibody on mast cells to allergens d. lysis of cells by antibody and complement
7. A substance normally found in the blood plasma that can lyse cells that have antibody bound to them is called
a. M protein b. kinase C. complement d. endotoxin
8. A specifically reactive protein produced by an immunized host in response to a particular antigen is a(an)
a. exotoxin b. M protein c. toxoid D. antibody
9. An allergy to mold or pollen is most often mediated by
a. IgA B. IgE c. IgG d. IgM
10. The class of antibody molecules that is predominant in secondary responses and that can cross the placenta is
a. IgA b. IgE C. IgG d. IgM
11. The cell that recruits other cells to come to the area where an allergic reaction such as that made to poison ivy is taking place is a
a. B lymphocytes b. helper T lymphocytes c. cytotoxic T lymphocytes d. delayed hypersenitivity T lymphocytes


12. An exotoxin is the only significant virulence factor and is responsible for all the symptoms of the disease in
A. diphtheria b. dysentery c. tuberculosis d. strep throat
13. Impetigo is a skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. It is an example of a disease transferred between hosts by
a. vectors b. aerosols c. fecal contamination D. direct contact
14. An example of a disease transferred between hosts by direct contact is
a. cholera b. tuberculosis C. gonorrhea
15. The most common mode of transmission for pneumonia, diphtheria, and tuberculosis is
a. direct contact B. in aerosols c. contaminated water d. vectors
16. A nontoxic virulence factor that promotes survival of a pathogen by protecting it from phagocytosis is
a. pili B. capsule c. an enzyme d. mucous membrane
17. A disease which remains localized in a limited population or geographic area, and is constantly present with about the same number of cases from year to year is called a/an ____________ disease.
a. sporadic b. endemic C. epidemic d. pandemic
18. The time between exposure to a pathogen and the appearance of symptoms is called the
a. virulent period b. contagious interval C. incubation period
19. Good control of diseases spread by fecal contamination of food or water is best achieved by
a. vaccination of the majority of the population B. improved sanitation sewers and water purification
c. vector control d. prompt tracing of sexual contacts of those infected
20. An exotoxin is the only significant virulence factor and is responsible for all the symptoms of the disease in
A. diphtheria b. dysentery c. tuberculosis d. strep throat
21. Impetigo is a skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. It is an example of a disease transferred between hosts by
a. vectors b. aerosols c. fecal contamination D. direct contact
22. All of the following except one may make a host more vulnerable to invasion and colonization by a pathogen. Which one?
a. malnutrition c. immunosuppressive drug treatment
B. vaccination d. a chronic disease such as AIDS
23. An organism which produces hemolytic exotoxins which play an unknown role in causing disease is
A. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Vibrio cholerae d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
24. Spore formation and the ability to live in an anaerobic environment are significant characteristics in the pathogenesis of
a. Bacillus cereus c. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Salmonella typhimurium D. Clostridium botulinum
25. Streptococcus pyogenes produces _______________, a nontoxic virulence factor which breaks down fibrin clots.
A. streptokinase b. capsular polysaccharide c. neurotoxin d. erythrogenic toxin
26. Diarrhea, vomitting and abdominal pain are symptoms associated with food poisoning due to
a. Salmonella typhi C. Salmonella typhimurium
b. Clostridium botulinum d. Streptococcus pyogenes
27. Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin which
a. inhibits protein synthesis C. alters electrolyte balance in epithelial cells
b. causes a rash d. prevents nerve impulse transmission
28. The principle host defense eventually effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
a. inflammation c. antibody-mediated immune responses
b. ciliated epithelial cells D. cell-mediated immune responses
29. Invasion of and intracellular growth in the epithelial cells lining the intestine is a characteristic of
a. Vibrio cholerae B. Shigella dysenteriae
c. Salmonella typhid. Salmonella typhimurium
30. Ingestion of the toxin of Clostridium botulinum is much more serious than ingestion of the vegetative cells.
A. true b. false
31. Antibodies to bacterial antigens can crossreact with proteins on human tissues to cause complications following
a. diphtheria b. pneumonia c. tuberculosis D. strep throat
32. Intracellular growth in macrophages is a feature of the pathogenesis of the organism that causes
a. dysentery b. pneumonia C. typhoid fever d. gonorrhea
33. Long-term treatment of this disease is necessary because the organism that causes it divides slowly and is located in walled-off areas that are hard to penetrate.
a. typhoid fever B. tuberculosis c. dysentery d. cholera
34. The diseases caused by Shigella dysenteriae and Vibrio cholerae are similar in that both
(1) involve loss of large amounts of fluids through diarrhea
(2) involve invasion of the intestinal lining
(3) are due entirely to the effect of an exotoxin
(4) remain localized in the intestine
a. (1) and (2) b. (2) and (3) c. (2) and (4) D. (1) and (4)
35. The principle host defense effective against Streptococcus pneumoniae is
a. inflammation C. antibody-mediated immune response
b. unknown d. cell-mediated immune response